I believe because this is the shortest series on pi. It also means that he is the most accurate.
The Gregory-Leibniz series (4/1 - 4/3 + 4/5 - 4/7 ...) is equal to pi.
atan (x) = x ^ 1/1 - x ^ 3/3 + x ^ 5/5 - x ^ 7/7 ...
So, atan (1) = 1/1 - 1/3 + 1/5 - 1/7 + 1/9 ... 4 * atan (1) = 4/1 - 4/3 + 4/5 - 4 / 7 + 4/9 ...
This is equivalent to the Gregory-Leibniz series and therefore equal to pi, approximately 3.1415926535 8979323846 2643383279 5028841971 69399373510.
Another way to use atan and find pi:
pi = 16 * atan (1/5) - 4 * atan (1/239), but I find this more complicated.
Hope this helps!
(Honestly, I think the Gregory-Leibniz series was based on atan, not 4 * atan (1) based on the Gregory-Leibniz series. In other words, REAL proof:
sin ^ 2 x + cos ^ 2 x = 1 [Theorem] If x = pi / 4 radians, sin ^ 2 x = cos ^ 2 x or sin ^ 2 x = cos ^ 2 x = 1/2.
Then sin x = cos x = 1 / (root 2). tan x (sin x / cos x) = 1, atan x (1 / tan x) = 1.
So, if atan (x) = 1, x = pi / 4 and atan (1) = pi / 4. Finally, 4 * atan (1) = pi.)
Please do not upload me comments - I am still a teenager.
Justin Nov 17 '13 at 2:48 on 2013-11-17 02:48
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